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1.
To increase the readability of training materials, one
should
A.
combine two or more sentences into one long sentence
B.
combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph.
C.
replace concrete words with abstract words.
D. add checklists and
illustrations to clarify the text.
2.
Three of the following are reasons that employers use application forms. Which
is not a reason for
which
employers use application forms?
A.
The forms allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.
B.
The forms are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.
C.
The forms aren’t
subject to legal validation requirements.
D.
The forms ensure that the organization controls the content of the information
received and the manner in which it’s presented.
3.
Three of the following would enhance recruiter effectiveness. Which would not
enhance recruiter
effectiveness?
A.
Using realistic job
previews as part of the recruitment process
B.
Ensuring that recruiters provide applicants with timely feedback
C.
Ensuring that recruiters are knowledgeable about company policies and
procedures
D.
Recruiting in teams rather than individually
4.
Predictive validation is better than concurrent validation because
A. the research administers tests
to people who currently hold the job.
B.
it’s more time-consuming and difficult.
C.
job applicants’ performance on the tests is influenced by their firsthand
experience with the job.
D.
the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test.
5.
According to the Training 2007 Industry Report, which training task was
outsourced the most?
A.
Custom content
End
of exam
B.
Instruction
C.
Learner support
D.
Need analysis
6.
Which of the following statements about benchmarks is false?
A.
While managers enjoy
completing the instrument and find the results interesting, research is
inconclusive regarding the skills
measured and their relationship to
on-the-job performance.
B.
The instrument measures 16 skills and perspectives, such as how well managers
deal with subordinates, acquire resources,
and
create a productive work climate.
C.
The managers’ supervisors, their peers, and the managers themselves must
complete the instrument to ensure its effectiveness.
D.
The items measured by benchmarks are based on research into the lessons that
executives have learned as a result of critical
events
within their careers.
7.
Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of
performance information?
A.
Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships.
B.
Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don’t have the
opportunity to observe employees.
C.
Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective
to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely
valid
assessments of performance.
D.
Peers are more willing
participants in reviews used for employees
8.
What is the employee’s responsibility in the self-assessment stage of career
management?
A.
Identify opportunities
and areas of needed improvement
B.
Identify steps and a timetable to reach goals
C.
Provide assessment information to identify strengths, weaknesses, interests,
and values
D.
Communicate performance evaluations
9.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a balanced scorecard?
A. A balanced scorecard links external
pay rates with internal job structures, allowing organizations to gain both
internal and
external pay equity.
B.
A balanced scorecard balances the disadvantages of one type of incentive pay with
the advantages of another type.
C.
Communicating a balanced scorecard helps employees understand the
organization’s goals and how they might contribute to
these
goals.
D.
A balanced scorecard allows for a combination of performance measures that are
directed toward both the company’s longand
short-term
objectives
10.
An organization is adjusting pay to better match a local labor market in which
the cost of living is rising
sharply.
These adjustments are called
A.
rank-and-file adjustments.
B.
bonuses.
C. pay differentials.
D.
green-circle rates
11.
From which source do most retirees receive the largest percentage of their
retirement income?
A.
Disability insurance
B.
Earnings from personal assets
C.
Social Security
D.
Private pensions
12.
Organizations being squeezed between labor and product markets need to
A.
move from job-based pay structures to skill-based pay systems, where employees
are empowered and jobs are more
enriched.
B.
change their strategic mission and direction, moving to more attractive
industries.
C.
couple pay policies
with creative HR, production, and marketing management to make workers’
contributions more valuable
and products more profitable.
D.
move their operations overseas.
13.
Why are growing numbers of employers opting for defined-contribution plans?
A.
They guarantee a specified level of retirement income.
B.
Defined-contribution plans are required by ERISA.
C. Employers are free from the
risk of poor performance of the plans.
D.
PGBC makes annual contribution of $33 per participant
14.
Three of the following are vesting rights. Which is not a vesting right?
A.
The right to a pension at retirement
B. A guarantee that the employer won’t
switch the pension plan from defined-benefit to defined-contribution plan
C.
The right to a pension regardless of whether or not the employee remains with
the employer until retirement
D.
In most cases, a waiting period of no more than five years or a three- to
seven-year period, with 20 percent in the third and
each
year thereafter
15.
Since the 1990s, the trend in larger public companies is to grant stock options
to
A.
all exempt employees.
B.
only top management.
C.
all top and middle managers.
D. all employees
16. Which of the following is not appropriate using e-HRM?
A. Online recruitment
B. Online testing
C. Online
grievance redressal
D. Online surveys
17. Which of the following is a false statement about the goals of
management?
A. Management’s goals continue to emphasize restraining costs and
improving output.
B. Management
prefers to increase wages and benefits and allow flexibility of work rules and
schedules.
C. Management goals are to increase the organization’s profits.
D. Management’s concern is that a union will create higher costs
in wages and benefits, as well as raise the risk of work
stoppages.
18. Which of the following is a false statement about
unfair-labor-practice charges?
A. Charges are filed with the NLRB.
B. Charges
must be filed within 12 months of the alleged unfair labor practice.
C. Complaints may be deferred to an agreed-upon employer-union
grievance procedure.
D. If the charges are investigated and found to have merit, a
formal complaint is issued.
19. Which of the following is a false statement about the
performance management process across national
boundaries?
A. The extent to which managers measure performance varies from
one country to another, with some organizations having to
update their performance plans more often than once a year.
B. Although employees around the world appreciate feedback, U.S.
employees are generally much more used to direct
feedback than are employees in other countries.
C. The general principles of performance management apply in most
countries, but the specific methods that work in one country
may fail in another.
D. While
the measures used may vary from country to country, the legal requirements
remain the same as those in the United
States.
20. Recruitment and selection activities within a high-performance
organization include three of the
following. Which is not a recruitment and selection activity
within a high-performance organization?
A. Finding employees who innovate, share ideas, and take
initiative
B. Selection methods that include group interviews, open-ended
questions, and psychological tests
C. Selection
methods that concentrate on identifying technical skills only
D. Finding employees who are enthusiastic about and able to
contribute to teamwork, empowerment, and knowledge sharing
21. Three typical questions asked for assessing candidates for
overseas assignments about family considerations are among the following. Which
is not a typical question about family considerations for an
overseas assignment candidate?
A. How is each member of the family reacting to this possible
move?
B. Can the
candidate work without supervision?
C. How many moves has the family made in the past among different
cities or parts of the United States?
D. What is the spouse’s goal in this move?
22. Which of the following is a false statement about grievance
procedures?
A. Grievance procedures generally have several steps prior to
arbitration.
B. Under the duty of fair representation, the union must give
equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether
or not they actually belong to the union.
C. The
merits of an arbitrator’s ruling can’t be appealed to the courts.
D. The majority of grievances are settled during the earlier steps
of the process.
23. Which of the following statements about expert systems is
false?
A. Expert systems can increase efficiency by enabling fewer or
less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require
many highly skilled employees.
B. Expert systems help avoid the errors that can result from
fatigue and decision-making biases.
C. Expert
systems deliver high-quality decisions at a high cost.
D. Expert systems provide consistency in decision making.
24. Which of the following is a correct statement about
inpatriates?
A. Inpatriates
are foreign employees who come to the United States to work for the U.S.-based
parent company.
B. Inpatriates are employees transferred from a company’s site in
one state to another state within the United States.
C. Inpatriates are employees from countries other than the parent
country placed in facilities of other countries.
D. Inpatriates are employees from one division of the company
being moved to another division.
25. Union membership in the United States peaked in the
A. 1990s.
B. 1960s.
C. 1980s.
D. 1950s.
26. Which of the following is not an HRM application?
A. Decision support systems
B. Customer relationship
support systems
C. Transaction processing
D. Expert systems
27. Which of the following is an advantage of a relational
database?
A. It helps people arrive at decisions that reflect expert
knowledge.
B. Databases are stored in a central location.
C. Information is stored in one large file.
D. Users can file or
retrieve information according to any field across different bases.
28. The purpose of the National Labor Relations Board is to
A. conduct
and certify representation elections, determine the employees who are eligible
to participate in organizing activities
and bargaining units, and
prevent unfair labor practices.
B. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company
records regarding the negotiation and enforcement of all contract
provisions and related labor-relation activities.
C. regulate unfair labor practices and levy punitive charges on
the violators.
D. draft, hold a hearing on, and promulgate rules and regulations
regarding union-management relations.
29. The most notable disadvantage for virtual expatriates is the
A. isolation that comes with never returning to their home
countries.
B. loss in income they’ll experience as a result of accepting
their overseas assignment.
C. amount of time they must spend away from friends and family
while on assignment.
D.
difficulty they’ll experience in building relationships with host-country
personnel.
30 _______ promotes respect for past tradition and for fulfilling
social obligations in the present.
A. Large power distance
B. Femininity
C.
Short-term orientation
D. Uncertainty avoidance
31. When negotiating their first labor contract, over _______ of
parties are unable to reach an agreement.
A. one-fourth
B. one-half
C. one-third
D. three-fourths
32. Which of the following is a false statement about fact-finding
as an impasse resolution procedure?
A. A
fact-finder is often used for negotiations with governmental bodies.
B. A fact-finder reports on the reasons for the dispute.
C. A fact-finder’s findings are binding on the parties.
End of exam
D. A fact-finder’s findings are made public.
33. Which of the following is a false statement about feedback
across national boundaries?
A. Employees around the world appreciate positive feedback.
B. In Thailand, managers avoid giving negative feedback to
employees because they fear this would cause them to have bad
karma.
C. In Mexico, managers are expected to provide positive feedback
before focusing the discussion on behaviors the employee
needs to improve.
D. The content of the
feedback is more important than the manner of giving it.
